The Jovian Planets Essay -- essays research papers

The Jovian Planets     Far beyond Earth in the solar nebula lies an ice belt and beyond that lay the quaternion Jovian planets. They atomic number 18 Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune. Jovian means "Jupiter- like" in which the rest of the Jovian planets do coincide with the name. Uranus Neptune and Saturn, every last(predicate) carry the very(prenominal) traits as Jupiter. The jovian planets are large gas giants that contain mainly a thick atmosphere of Hydrogen and helium. These planets do not have solid surfaces, rather they bonnie get denser with depth. They contain high mass and are usually anywhere from 15 to 318 clock the mass of nation. They also contain many satellites and the gravity is very much stronger than that of earth. The jovian planets inner structure probably consists of a rocky core of metals, water, ammonia and methane. Usually these cores are most the same size as earth possibly a little larger. It is also possible that Ura nus and Neptunes core is a liquid instead of a solid. The Jovian planets also have about the same rotational characteristics and all have rings around them. Jupiter, the first of the jovian planets, reigns supreme throughout the solar system. Named after the Roman god Jove, the formula of Olympus Jupiter is the fifth planet from the sun and is also the largest planet in the Earths solar system. It is 318 times more massive than Earth and is two thirds of the mercurial mass in the solar system. Jupiters surface, unlike earth, is gaseous and not a solid. It is about 90% atomic number 1 and 10% helium with traces of methane, ammonia, water and rock. Jupiters interior is very similar to the Suns interior but with a far lower temperature. However, it is still unknown but Jupiter is believed to have a core of liquid metallic hydrogen. This exotic element can only be achieved at pressure greater than 4 million bars. Jupiter radiates more dexterity in space than it receives from the sun . The interior of Jupiter is hot and has been estimated to be 20000 degrees Kelvin. The heat is generated by the Kelvin- Hemholtz mechanism, or the gravitational compression of a planet. It gives off about 1.5 to 2 times more energy than the sun. It is speculated that the source of this heat is due to the rapid rotation of the planet and its liquid metallic hydrogen core.Liquid Metallic hydrogen consists mainly of ionized protons and electrons and is the electric... ... tidal forces, which caused nitro gas volcanoes on its surface.Different from the terrestrial planets, the Jovian planets are basically big balls of gas. The jovian planets seemed to be organize around the same time from the solar nebula. Jupiter and Saturn are the closest in nature to each other with Neptune and Uranus taking on a few of their traits. They all carry the same characteristics in their Classification. The Jovian planets are composed mainly of helium and hydrogen. They have a liquid or small rocky core . They are usually high in mass and low in density. They have many satellites and the gravity is much stronger than Earths. They also all share the same banding and zoning winds. With these characteristics defined with each description given it is easy to see how the planets, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are Jovian or "Jupiter - like".Bibliographies Seeds, Michael A., Foundations of Astronomy copyright 1994, Wadsworth inc. Considine, Douglas M. cutting edge Nostrands Scientific Encyclopedia, volume eight Copyright 1995, Van Nostrand Rienholdt, NYMaran, Stephen P. , The Astronomy and Astrophysics Encyclopedia, Copyright 1992, Van Nostrand Rienholdt, NY

Osteomyelitis Essay -- Health, Diseases

OsteomyelitisOsteomyelitis is a common bone infection caused by bacteria or in some cases, fungus 1. Osteomyelitis generally occurs by infection of bacteria in several different ways, including via the bloodstream, from neighboring argonas of infection, or due to non-sterile joint replacements and internal fixations much(prenominal) as fractures 2. In 90% of cases, an S. aereus bacterium is the microbial culprit responsible for osteomyelitis 3. In the cases of open would fractures, osteomyelitis can interfere with normal bone healing and variation 4. Symptoms of osteomyelitis include bone pain, fever, malaise, swelling, redness, chills, excessive sweating, and joint pains 5. It is reported that in 20% of the cases, the infection is hematogenous, or spread by the blood 6. The incidence of spinal anaesthesia osteomyelitis was reported to be 1 in 450,000 in 2001 7. The incidence of vertebral osteomyelitis is reported to be 24 cases per 1,000,000 and the incidence in children is approximately 1 in 5,000 8. Approximately 10-15% of people with vertebral osteomyelitis develop spinal-cord compression and approximately 30% of patients with long bone osteomyelitis develop deep vein thrombosis (DVT) 9. Mortality rates are generally low unless sepsis occurs 10. The overall incidence of osteomyelitis was found to be higher in developing countries compared to developed nations 11. Current Clinical Standard of CareThe online gold standard treatment for osteomyelitis is gentamycin or vancomycin impregnated poly methyl methacrylate (PMMA) beads 12. These beads are surgically implanted at the site of bacterial infection, and the antibiotic drug will diffuse from these beads 12. Both vancomycin and gentamycin inhibit bacterial g... ..., the in vivo studies show that the effectiveness of the delivery system in terms of bacterial growth inhibition is comparable to the clinical standard of care, the PMMA beads. Further studies would include determining the compressiv e strengths of the PUR scaffolds to decide where they could be placed in a load-bearing setting, systemic toxicity studies to ensure that neither the vancomycin nor PUR is present in toxically high concentrations in the serum after implantation, and a prolonged study to show that the PUR scaffold is in fact biodegradable, thereby by-passing the second surgical step which is required for the PMMA beads. Li et al 21 also did not do any studies comparing the PUR-LTI and PUR-HDIt scaffolds below the same experimental conditions. These studies would also be critical to determine which scaffold formulation should be pursued long-term.

Essay --

Dr. J. Robert Oppenheimer was born in the midst of New York City to a blind drunk family in 1904. He had German decent on his mothers side whose family had lived in the United States for a few generations, band senesce his have, Julius Oppenheimer, had only recently come from Germany. His father was a farmer and a grain merchant in Germany. When he arrived at New York, He started working at Rothfeldt-Stern Company,a textile import employment that was run by two of his uncles. The company changed their business to tailored suits, Julius quickly worked his way up the ranks. When Julius and Ella, Roberts mother, got married in 1903, they lived in an elegant apartment in the Upper West Side of New York City. Julius Oppenheimer was a man of art. He met Ella at a New York Exhibition for European artists. The works of famous artists livened their apartment. Oppenheimer showed signs of brilliance very early on in his life. His interests as a child were minerals, reading, writing poetry, and building with blocks. His interest in minerals was sparked when his grandfather gave him a pack of labeled rocks on the familys trips to Germany. When he became eleven he wrote a paper to the New York Mineralogy Society. When he showed for the lecture, the other members were surprised to find a boy of eleven while the next youngest member was in his seventies. While his parents were delighted by his brilliance, his mother found his antisocial traits to be worrisome and encouraged him to interact with other boys his age but his personality did not allow him to be a social person throughout his early years. In 1912, Oppenheimer gained a brother by the gain of Frank. His brother being eight years younger than Oppenheimer, he was not as gifted as his brot... ...oard and after a long trial had his certification Clearance revoked. Despite the public out roar, he moved on to Princeton, and took over as the Director of Advanced Study from Albert Einstein. After he res igned he went on to live a quiet life on Long Island spending time sailing and horseback riding with his wife and children. He was awarded an Enrico femtometer award in 1963. He died in 1967, of throat cancer, leaving a great impact of the world. Overall, Oppenheimer was one of the world greatest influences and scientists in the world. His studies and research into atomic science helped develop modern power usage of radioactive elements and he also helped end the Second World War. While many scientists expressed their affliction in participation in the Manhattan Project, Oppenheimer did not regret his participation because he saw the good and bad in both sides.

Marks and Spencer Strategy Insight :: Business Management Retail Consumerism Essays

Marks and Spencer Strategy InsightAt the Marks & Spencer AGM, on the 11th July 2001, Luc Vandevelde, the Chairman and Chief administrator of Marks & Spencer, gave a key speech regarding the managements recovery plan for the company, which was launched earlier in the year. The speech and extracts from Marks & Spencer Press Releases, presented below, provide a valuable acumen into the nature of strategic planning within large organisations, and the role of the Chairman and Chief Executive in this process.Extracts from the SpeechGood morning. Welcome to the 2001 Annual General Meeting. I want to pick up exactly where we left off a year ago. In response to the very last question from the floor at the 2000 AGM, I made this recital I am taking charge and I will create shareholder value in the future.Id like you to keep that statement in mind. In everything we have done or are planning to do for your Company, we share with you the common objective of increasing the value of your investme nt by returning Marks & Spencer to its rightful, leading position in the marketplace.As to taking charge, at the last AGM Id been with Marks & Spencer for less than five months - and I didnt take over as Chief Executive until two months after the AGM in September 2000.At that point, a little over six months in, I came to certain conclusions about the Companys dodging ... and it took six months because Marks & Spencer is a very unique and very complex company.My conclusion was that the recovery plan, then in place, was doing a lot of useful things ... ready us closer to our customers, improving our supply chain, and so on. But it still wasnt good enough to address the real problems of the Company which, as Ive already admitted, were to a greater extent serious than I realised when I first took up this post.The previous plan was like feeding a tree that was already overgrown and unhealthy. What it genuinely needed was serious pruning back. It had unproductive limbs that were hampe ring its growth and a lot of its best characteristics were lost in the foliage.It became clear that for M&S to grow productively, we had to get back to its core strengths - to those fundamentals that underpinned its success in the past - and begin our recovery from there.Putting together the right team

A Shot that Ricocheted through History Essay -- essays research papers

A Shot That Ricocheted Through taradiddleMedgar Evers was a valet who was not afraid to stand up for what he believed in. He believed that one-day blacks and whites would be able to associate with each other without racial interference. He would later die for what he believed and leave an example for alone who was following in his path. The man believed to have shot him was tried three times and finally convicted in the third political campaign nearly thirty years after his death. Evers was seen as a martyr for all black to look up to.As complaisant rights began to gain economic aid of the United States, blacks decided they needed to change their prelude from court cases to a to a greater extent nonviolent approach. On August 28, 1963, the movement reached its strongest points. They made a work on at Washington D. C., and wanted to federal civil rights legislation to give them equal rights. This is where Martin Luther force gave his famous I Have A Dream speech. King belie ved that most whites were basically decent and when faced by love would allow injustice and brutality to continue. (Jordan) The nonviolent approach would prove to be a mend approach for them in later times.When blacks began charging their approach, they began preferring sit-ins. This all started at a public lunch counter at F. W. Woolsworths in Greensboro, North Carolina and began to spread to all public land counties across the south. As sit-ins became more common, they moved to other public places such as parks, movie theatres, swimming pools, libraries, lobbies, and many other discriminate facilities. After several months of sit-ins, they began to become desegregated. Blacks in any case began a strong movement to get public schools desegregated as well. They finally succeeded with Ole Miss, when they accepted James Meredith into the school. President Kennedy also tried to help blacks by approaching the occupation with caution. He did this by encouraging company with government contracts to hire black Americans.On July 2, 1925 in Decatur, Ms, a black man by the name of Medgar Wiley Evers was born. Until he joined the Army in 1943, he attended school in Decatur. He served Normandy and to Alcorn to pursue his college didactics in which he majored in business administration. epoch in that respect, he participated in many school... ...egacy of Evers is everywhere present today. This peaceful man, who had constantly urged that violence is not the track ,but paid for his beliefs with his life, was a prominent voice of clamber for civil rights in Mississippi. Many people, including his wife paid tribute to him into years past. His wife wrote a withstand called For Us, The Living, but the best is state to be, Mississippi, Black History Makers. Ten years after his death it was recorded that in that respect had been one hundred and forty atomic number 23 black officials elected to office in Mississippi, and that there was a black student in each of the sta tes private schools. In 1970, the Department of Health, Education, and welfare said that twenty-six percent of black people in the Mississippi public schools system with at least fifty percent white enrollment. In 1913, there were only twenty eight thousand blacks registered voters, and by 1971 there were two hundred and fifty thousand. Even in 1982, there were five hundred thousand. (JDP) though the hard work and struggle of one man was ended with death, the changed be brought about are still evident today. This has only made Mississippi a better and more peaceful place to run short for all races. A Shot that Ricocheted through History Essay -- essays research papers A Shot That Ricocheted Through HistoryMedgar Evers was a man who was not afraid to stand up for what he believed in. He believed that one-day blacks and whites would be able to associate with each other without racial interference. He would later die for what he believed and leave an example for all who was following in his path. The man believed to have shot him was tried three times and finally convicted in the third trial nearly thirty years after his death. Evers was seen as a martyr for all black to look up to.As civil rights began to gain attention of the United States, blacks decided they needed to change their approach from court cases to a more nonviolent approach. On August 28, 1963, the movement reached its strongest points. They made a march at Washington D. C., and wanted to federal civil rights legislation to give them equal rights. This is where Martin Luther King gave his famous I Have A Dream speech. King believed that most whites were basically decent and when faced by love would allow injustice and brutality to continue. (Jordan) The nonviolent approach would prove to be a better approach for them in later times.When blacks began charging their approach, they began preferring sit-ins. This all started at a public lunch counter at F. W. Woolsworths in Greensbo ro, North Carolina and began to spread to all public land counties across the south. As sit-ins became more common, they moved to other public places such as parks, movie theatres, swimming pools, libraries, lobbies, and many other segregated facilities. After several months of sit-ins, they began to become desegregated. Blacks also began a strong movement to get public schools desegregated as well. They finally succeeded with Ole Miss, when they accepted James Meredith into the school. President Kennedy also tried to help blacks by approaching the problem with caution. He did this by encouraging company with government contracts to hire black Americans.On July 2, 1925 in Decatur, Ms, a black man by the name of Medgar Wiley Evers was born. Until he joined the Army in 1943, he attended school in Decatur. He served Normandy and to Alcorn to pursue his college education in which he majored in business administration. While there, he participated in many school... ...egacy of Evers is everywhere present today. This peaceful man, who had constantly urged that violence is not the way ,but paid for his beliefs with his life, was a prominent voice of struggle for civil rights in Mississippi. Many people, including his wife paid tribute to him into years past. His wife wrote a book called For Us, The Living, but the best is said to be, Mississippi, Black History Makers. Ten years after his death it was recorded that there had been one hundred and forty five black officials elected to office in Mississippi, and that there was a black student in each of the states private schools. In 1970, the Department of Health, Education, and welfare said that twenty-six percent of black people in the Mississippi public schools system with at least fifty percent white enrollment. In 1913, there were only twenty eight thousand blacks registered voters, and by 1971 there were two hundred and fifty thousand. Even in 1982, there were five hundred thousand. (JDP) Though the hard work and struggle of one man was ended with death, the changed be brought about are still evident today. This has only made Mississippi a better and more peaceful place to live for all races.

A Shot that Ricocheted through History Essay -- essays research papers

A Shot That Ricocheted Through scoreMedgar Evers was a globe who was non afraid to stand up for what he believed in. He believed that one-day blacks and whites would be able to associate with each other without racial interference. He would later die for what he believed and leave an example for altogether who was following in his path. The man believed to have shot him was tried three times and finally convicted in the third running nearly thirty years after his death. Evers was seen as a martyr for all black to look up to.As accomplished rights began to gain forethought of the United States, blacks decided they needed to change their come up from court cases to a to a greater extent nonviolent approach. On August 28, 1963, the movement reached its strongest points. They made a marching at Washington D. C., and wanted to federal civil rights legislation to give them equal rights. This is where Martin Luther male monarch gave his famous I Have A Dream speech. King believe d that most whites were basically decent and when faced by love would allow injustice and brutality to continue. (Jordan) The nonviolent approach would prove to be a fail approach for them in later times.When blacks began charging their approach, they began preferring sit-ins. This all started at a public lunch counter at F. W. Woolsworths in Greensboro, North Carolina and began to spread to all public land counties across the south. As sit-ins became more common, they moved to other public places such as parks, movie theatres, swimming pools, libraries, lobbies, and many other segregated facilities. After several months of sit-ins, they began to become desegregated. Blacks besides began a strong movement to get public schools desegregated as well. They finally succeeded with Ole Miss, when they accepted James Meredith into the school. President Kennedy also tried to help blacks by approaching the line of work with caution. He did this by encouraging company with government cont racts to hire black Americans.On July 2, 1925 in Decatur, Ms, a black man by the name of Medgar Wiley Evers was born. Until he joined the Army in 1943, he attended school in Decatur. He served Normandy and to Alcorn to pursue his college statement in which he majored in business administration. maculation thither, he participated in many school... ...egacy of Evers is everywhere present today. This peaceful man, who had constantly urged that violence is not the route ,but paid for his beliefs with his life, was a prominent voice of cope for civil rights in Mississippi. Many people, including his wife paid tribute to him into years past. His wife wrote a mass called For Us, The Living, but the best is verbalize to be, Mississippi, Black History Makers. Ten years after his death it was recorded that on that point had been one hundred and forty quint black officials elected to office in Mississippi, and that there was a black student in each of the states private schools. In 1 970, the Department of Health, Education, and welfare said that twenty-six percent of black people in the Mississippi public schools system with at least fifty percent white enrollment. In 1913, there were only twenty eight thousand blacks registered voters, and by 1971 there were two hundred and fifty thousand. Even in 1982, there were five hundred thousand. (JDP) though the hard work and struggle of one man was ended with death, the changed be brought about are still evident today. This has only made Mississippi a better and more peaceful place to pass for all races. A Shot that Ricocheted through History Essay -- essays research papers A Shot That Ricocheted Through HistoryMedgar Evers was a man who was not afraid to stand up for what he believed in. He believed that one-day blacks and whites would be able to associate with each other without racial interference. He would later die for what he believed and leave an example for all who was following in his path. The man believed to have shot him was tried three times and finally convicted in the third trial nearly thirty years after his death. Evers was seen as a martyr for all black to look up to.As civil rights began to gain attention of the United States, blacks decided they needed to change their approach from court cases to a more nonviolent approach. On August 28, 1963, the movement reached its strongest points. They made a march at Washington D. C., and wanted to federal civil rights legislation to give them equal rights. This is where Martin Luther King gave his famous I Have A Dream speech. King believed that most whites were basically decent and when faced by love would allow injustice and brutality to continue. (Jordan) The nonviolent approach would prove to be a better approach for them in later times.When blacks began charging their approach, they began preferring sit-ins. This all started at a public lunch counter at F. W. Woolsworths in Greensboro, North Carolina and began t o spread to all public land counties across the south. As sit-ins became more common, they moved to other public places such as parks, movie theatres, swimming pools, libraries, lobbies, and many other segregated facilities. After several months of sit-ins, they began to become desegregated. Blacks also began a strong movement to get public schools desegregated as well. They finally succeeded with Ole Miss, when they accepted James Meredith into the school. President Kennedy also tried to help blacks by approaching the problem with caution. He did this by encouraging company with government contracts to hire black Americans.On July 2, 1925 in Decatur, Ms, a black man by the name of Medgar Wiley Evers was born. Until he joined the Army in 1943, he attended school in Decatur. He served Normandy and to Alcorn to pursue his college education in which he majored in business administration. While there, he participated in many school... ...egacy of Evers is everywhere present today. This peaceful man, who had constantly urged that violence is not the way ,but paid for his beliefs with his life, was a prominent voice of struggle for civil rights in Mississippi. Many people, including his wife paid tribute to him into years past. His wife wrote a book called For Us, The Living, but the best is said to be, Mississippi, Black History Makers. Ten years after his death it was recorded that there had been one hundred and forty five black officials elected to office in Mississippi, and that there was a black student in each of the states private schools. In 1970, the Department of Health, Education, and welfare said that twenty-six percent of black people in the Mississippi public schools system with at least fifty percent white enrollment. In 1913, there were only twenty eight thousand blacks registered voters, and by 1971 there were two hundred and fifty thousand. Even in 1982, there were five hundred thousand. (JDP) Though the hard work and struggle of one man was ended with death, the changed be brought about are still evident today. This has only made Mississippi a better and more peaceful place to live for all races.

Phyllis Hunter on Reading Rockets: Reaction Paper

Reaction Paper to Phyllis huntsman on Reading Rockets The podcast of Phyllis Hunter on Reading Rockets Meet the Experts titled Teaching Reading demonstrated the importance of teaching children to shoot right the first time. According to Hunter (2008) rendition is the first civil right because without being able to read well and strategic in ally, one is unable to access his or her other civil rights and that teaching children to read is a schools first mission. Children need to be cultivation at grade level or above before completing the third grade (Hunter, 2008).I agree with Hunters statement that good is non good enough when we can do better. Teaching children to read is one ara where we cannot render to settle for good, we must strive for better(p). Reading is a fundamental skill that is necessary for all future learning. Hunter (2008) discussed the need to use the research and not teach with the method that he or she feels is the right thing. Teachers need to be able to read and evaluate research to find what will be of cling to and has creditable in schoolroom instruction.Teachers must be committed to being a lifelong learner. Learning must then be incorporated into the classroom teaching practices. Stanovich & Stanovich (2003) contend that scientific research about what works does not usually find its way into most classrooms. Teachers must be committed to devising proven methods a part of their daily instruction techniques. According to Hunter (2008) the best schools use the proven research methods in their classroom.Taylor (2002) referenced the following characteristics of teachers who are effective in teaching children to read Maintaining instructional balance, spark higher-level thinking by discussing what was read, teach how to transfer skills and strategies to independent reading, coaching as children are reading and writing, foster a sense of responsibility in children for their own learning, provide motivating instruction with many op portunities for reading and writing, teachers have high expectations that their pupils can do well, manage their classroom, foster strong parent relationships.If one agrees with Hunter that our children deserve the best in reading education, then one must develop the best characteristics in ones teaching style. Just as it is best to teach reading right the first time, it is best to start out on the right direction using proven methods than to try to correct latter. References Hunter Phyllis, (2008). Phyllis Hunter (Teaching Reading). Reading Rockets present Meet the Experts.Retrieved September 2, 2008, from http//www. readingrockets. org/podcasts/experts Taylor, B. M. (2002). Characteristics of teachers that are effective in teaching all children to read. National Education Association. Retrieved September 2, 2008. Stanovich, P. J. , & Stanovich, K. E. (2003). Using Research and Reason in Education. National Institute for Literacy. Retrieved September 2, 2008, from http//www. nifl. gov/partnershipforreading/

Carer Definition Essay

First of all we need to look at what is meant by the word contendr. A government website agrees the word carer means manybody who looks after a wizard, relative or neighbour who needs support because of their sickness, age or disability. (Directgov 2006). A carer goes beyond what is expected from a relative, friend or neighbour they are not paid like some professionals known as care workers, although they are vital to the government in providing care to some of the most vulnerable. The type of care given within the family environment saves the government billions a year which otherwise would be unaffordable. I am passing game to discuss throughout the assignment Anne Walker a stepdaughter caring for her stepfather Angus McPhail and touch upon the challenges both these people face in their daily lifes when giving and receiving care.There are many difficulties involved in giving care. Being a carer can be physically and mentally demanding and in some cases carers need to be on cal l anytime day or night. Caring for a family member can be hard work and your role within the family setting can change. You are no longer seen as a daughter, son, wife or parent but as a carer. This can be a change in identity within the family home which can strain the quality of relationships that already existed prior to taking on the caring role. For cause if we look at the case study of Ann Walker who has a full time caring role for her stepfather Angus McPhail. Anne is also a wife, she lacks time to unload with her husband as she needs to attend to her stepfather for all of his physical needs. Her husband also has a difficult relationship with Angus which has led to Anne at clock having to physically remove herself from the house.

Ethics and “A Few Good Men” Essay

The movie is righteous abtaboo dickens nauticals indicted for the murder of a pesterer marine in their pla in additionn. Private First Class (perfluorocarbon) William capital of Chile died because of l constituteic acidosis triggered by the assault inflicted by Lance Corporal Harold Dawson and Private Lowden Downey. This assault was the result of a direct hallow by the platoon commander Lieutenant Kendrick. The order was to train Santiago to respect the rule of the Marines and the chain of command. Private Santiago had broken this chain and written directly to the NIS asking for a transfer, in veer for offering information about an illegal fence-line shooting. When Col unrivalledl Nathan Jessep, commander of the marines stationed in Guantanamo Bay, Cuba, learned of this letter, he ordered the training of Private Santiago.In Guantanamo Bay, this training was referred to as Code Red, which was defined as the discipline of marines within the unit, by the unit, without involving the ripe government activity navy Jag Corp. When the navy learned of Private Santiago?s death, Dawson and Downey were placed under(a) arrest, and moved to Washington DC to be court-martialed. After a thorough litigation by defense attorney, Lt. Danial Kaffee, the court found Colonel Jessep and Lt. Kendrik conscience-smitten of the murder of PFC Santiago because they ordered the ?Code Red?. Dawson and Downey were cle bed of charges of murder and conspiracy to commit murder, but were found guilty of conduct improper a marine, and were discharged from the Marine Corp.6. Normative Ethical QuestionDid Dawson and Downey do the right thing by following the order?Dawson and Downeys actions were in harsh accordance with the orders given to them by their platoon commander, and were thus justified.The Marines be stayve, You follow orders or people die. This was primarily applicable during wartime when questioning an order can cause the lives of the marine and his fellow soldiers. Althou gh reserved for wartime, the marines in their day-to-day force life practice this belief. So when time comes for the marines to go to war, the thought of questioning an order never crosses their mind no matter of the severity of the order. Followingorders given by a superior officeholder is a part of the marine discipline, and breaking this discipline is non tolerated in gird forces.The order given to Dawson and Downey was to train PFC Santiago. Santiagos aggravated heart precedent was the primary reason of his death, and Dawson and Downey having followed their order were unfortunate to find Santiago dead in the training process. Had Santiago been physically fit, he would have in all likelihood, survived the training.However on the charge of becoming a linked states marine they were found guilty as charged. The reasoning for this is as followsDawson and Downey should have ignored the Code Red ordered by Colonel Jessup, and should have reported him to the proper authorities at the navy Jag Corp.The training also known as the Code Red was known to have harmful consequences. There were twain examples of the severity of the Code Red shown in the movie The first example was that of Private Bell, a soldier, getting nonhing but water for a time period of one week to keep him alive. The second example involved a soldier been given a Code Red for dropping a gas pedal during a training exercise. His punishment was to put glue on his runs, and have his arm punched for about twenty minutes. Evidently, a Code Red in military parlance meant punishment in its higher degree.PFC Santiago was known to be a shaky person. Dawson and Downey ignoring the fact that PFC Santiagos condition was deteriorating still followed Col. Jessups order for Code Red on Santiago. They should have been aw atomic number 18 of the fact that Code Red would cause irreparable damage to PFC Santiagos health on humanitarian grounds, Dawson and Downey should have contacted the proper authoriti es at the navy Jag Corp for a fair sagaciousness of the order. Looking at it from a variant perspective, Dawson and Downey would have been morally right to have neglected the order given to them by their superior. However, they were bound to their traffic override their commanding officers orders would have placed their career at stake.This case involves an ethical dilemma for the following reasons1. A murder has been committed. It is not pleasurable to take a human life merely because this individual doesnt get along with the rest of the comp all.2. The investigation of the murder is hindered. It is not acceptable to lie about the cause of death in an effort to preserve public relations or personal esteem.3. Cadets and officers lie under oath in court. It is unacceptable to lie in court. The military has determined that it is essential this case be investigated and prosecuted to the full extent of the law. A sub-group in the military cant drag its own rules of military moral ity.PFC Santiago is treated as a means rather than being treated as an end.The murder was immoral in every sense and those causing the murder should be punished to the fullest extent of the law. We further stipulate that it is unacceptable for a coverup of the murder. Colonel Nathan Jessup defends the practice of lying under an subject area of lying covered by Plato.Plato gave support for some lies when he said It is the business of the rulers of the city, if it is anybodys, to tell lies, deceiving both its enemies and its own citizens for the benefit of the city and no one else must touch this privilege.(1)If using the Plato type justification for the coverup, Jessup and those around him have a deluded sense of their place in national security. Their actions are not for the saving of military. Their actions and lies are for preservation of their own positionsThe responsibility of the commander to make sure his marines are prepared for any sort of danger from the enemy. Colonel Na than Jessup claims that codered as a method of training for soldiers was the American way. He defends the practice as that which is indispensable to defend the country. This reminds me of Plato?s conception of warriors where there is no place for the weak or sick people.The only difference between these two cases is that Plato would have not hesitated to propose euthanasia for such unproductive warriors. Colonel Jessup on the other hand proposed to train them by using force if necessary. . However, he uses intense form of punishment for the tiniest mistakes and flaws. So he cannot be justify such a punishment in the name of national security. But in today?s world such practices are detested and are against humanitarian grounds and any form of justification for their practice is barbaric.Nathan Jessup (Jack Nicholson) is a military officer who has covered up a murder. When he is in court on the rule stand, Nicholson, yells, You deficiency to know the truth? You want to know the tru th? Well, you cant handle the truth. Nicholsons testimony is that some military crimes must be cover song for national security purposes. He implies that it is acceptable to murder one cadet who isnt going along with the rest of the company. He states it is acceptable for him to lie about the incident under oath to protect the company involved as well as the military overall.Kant declares A lie is a liewhether it be told with good or bad intentBut if a lie does no harm to anyone and no ones interests are affected by it, is it a lie? Certainly.(2) Kant considers truthfulness is a tariff, an unconditional duty which holds in all circumstances.(3) According to the categorical imperative, if there is even one case in which it is acceptable to lie and honesty can be overridden, then the perfect status of the duty not to lie is compromised. Kant is most strident in not allowing for even a seemingly innocent lie, which could save a life instead of causing harm. He merely asserts that if something terrible happens it is not your fault. The terrible act is something wholly unjustified in the first place.(4)Duty is often represented by Kant and his deontological views on lying. Kant tells us that it is never acceptable to lie, and places this on the level ofa moral law, or a categorical imperative. He contends that lies always harm othersthe individual or society. To be truthful (honest) in all declarations, therefore, is a spiritual and absolutely commanding decree of reason, limited by no expediency.(5)Utilitarian Jeremy Bentham also would not allow for the Jessup defense of the coverup. Bentham delivered a frothy lecture to Englands judges who were using their power and lying to the people. Bentham sees nothing more abhorrent than using lies and power to further ones position.(6)The justification for the behaviors is weak, with hundreds of old age of morality, ethics, and laws written in opposition to Jessups rationale.In the particular case of PFC Santiago, Colo nel jessup seems to be aggravated by his appeal to the NIS and his breach of confidentiality of his unit. This brings us to the another(prenominal) moral debate. Was Santiago right in his decision to give false information of an illegal fence line shooting? We can make two speculations here. Either Santiago lied about the fence line shooting in a desperate attempt to get noticed by the authorities which could get him transferred for the information or he was mistaken about the shooting. This is to say that he did not realized that the mirror had engaged to fire first and Dawsen just retaliated in defence. Santiago can easily be forgiven for the latter.However, in the former case, normatively he should not have done what he did. But that was the only unimaginative thing he could do. Even though we can easily blame Santiago for lying, we should praise his attempt to break away from the finesse acceptance of the principles which command the lives of other marines. Even though Santti ago was physically weaker than the rest of the Platoon he had the mental capacity to fight against the odds of the absurd life in which he was seek to survive. This reminds me of the mahabharatta where Lord Krishna taught the Pandavas that it is good to lie got the fight for the Good. (I know that Kant would not agree with me)In A Few Good Men the debate is one of to whom is the crowning(prenominal) duty owed andwhere does the law fit into the equation? The soldiers facing court martial display their ultimate affiliation firmly?first and foremost their duty is to their marine corps god and country are secondary to the bond between their comrades and this is the fulcrum of the film are orders to be obeyed at all costs and where does the buck give way?Professor Alfonso Gomez-Lobo quotes Neither can military ethics properly exist without the concept of ordering. By ordering, I do not mean telling subordinates what to do. I refer, instead, to moral structuring and ethical priorities. In the movie A Few Good Men, a Marine lance corporal tells his lawyers that the code is based upon unit, corps, god, country. He has it, of course, all wrong. In fact, many illegal activities or stupid mistakes in the military services are the result of leaders failures to order wisely and well.The duty of a marine to follow the orders of a superior officer. The word duty here needs to be explained. It is the duty of the marine to fallow the orders of his superior officer if they are justified or legal. In Cuba however, disobeying an order implies to commit a crime. But since Code red is a practice discouraged by law, it is the duty of the marine to disobey such an order. An officer is always human and to equate him to be the ultimate legal authority is to make him invincible. It is this act of deception and blind faith that lets the powerful exploit.When an institution demands complete faith in its principles, the individuals within the institution are dependent on it, strive to maintain it and become unequal to(p) of independent thinking. At times like these the ethical question crops us which is more important? guiding principles of life or humans, code of honour or PFC Santiago.As for the Platoons annoyance on Santiagos betrayal for the unit and selfishness, I dont think it is valid. It would have been a different case had there been some compassion for Santiago within his Unit. His friends beat him up as a part of following orders, to keep up their jobs. From this perspective, they too are selfish. The only difference is that Santiago istowards the receiving end of brutalities, and it is convenient for the rest of the Platoon who were comparably stronger to talk about the loyalty within the unit.Interestingly, Lieutenant Kendrick too believe in the proper authority of God or his commanding officer Colonel Nathan R JessupHere we see that blind faith is associated with both God and the ColonelMoreover, the Colonel starts associating himself with God who protects and punishes others and expects the respect of all. He thinks that he is the personification of certain unquestionable principles.That the colonel lives by the rules and notions of the Marine Corps and doesnt fully comprehend the world outside.Both Dawson and Kaffee are good at what they do. That?s all they have in common. The contrast between the disciplined Dawson and the flippant Kaffee can be traced to their constitution of beliefs and their environment.Dawson mentions that he conjugated the navy so that he could live by a code. He believes that he did his duty and did it well and was even ready to face its consequences, but not plead guilty. Here we see the romanticized version of the code of honor. He failed to realize that the real strength of character lies in his discretion to protect the weak and not train him to protect himself. He lives in the misconceptions where certain principles appearDawson is like a person who wants to be religious and associates himself with religious practices no matter what they are which gives him a sense of satisfaction.Kaffee on the other hand has no delusions about the law. His only criterion is to solve his case as soon as accomplishable with the best interest of his client at heart. He believes that a case is not won by the law but the lawyer. He seems to have anomic his faith in all legal ethics due to the waylaw is practiced around him and he seems to be a part of the system too. Or in the least he has least to live with it.Daniel Kaffee is a smart, flippant, good-looking young Navy lawyer. in his late 20s, 15 months out of Harvard Law School, and a brilliant legal mind waiting for a courageous spirit to drive it. He is, at this point in his life, fervent about nothing except maybe softball. His father was a renowned jurist, and Dan feels the burden of his fathers reputation. Indeed, his casual, tongue-in-cheek attitude to the law is his way of avoiding simile with his father. You cant fail if you d ont even try. However, he lived in the shadows of his father having no misconceptions regarding different facets of law. He does not believe in a romanticized version of his profession.He did not believe his case to be a winner and first attempts to find an easy way out. Even though he sympathized with the state of his clients who were forced to carry out their orders, were blinded by the belief in false practices like ?Code Red?, he silent the politics associated with the case. His frustration is revealed when he emphasizes that I think you will lose and it does not matter what I believe, it only matters what I can prove..Despite these flaws he proves to be an excellent lawyer. This is because unlike the marines. He has learnt to question authority. He has not been conditioned by blind principles.the lawyer defending the two marines in A Few Good Men has to consider whether he should go beyond the legal and ethical codes under which he is bound and accuse a witness on the stand o f committing a crime for which the two marines are accused. He of course does and justice is done.In conclusion, it is evident that Dawson and Downey performed their duty as was expected of them. On ethical grounds, they would have been better off notifying the appropriate authorities of the nature of the order and the circumstances in which the order was to be executed. However, as fellowmarines under a commanding officer, they were compelled to follow orders without looking into the ethical or moral aspects of their actions. A marine?s discipline is taken very seriously by his commanding officers however, this does not imply that discipline takes priority over the mental and physical health of a marine. Santiago?s heart condition was no secret. Despite this fact, he was given the Code Red knowing fully well that he may not be able to take the embrace ? definitely, an unethical decision on the part of the authorities concerned.

Business Cycle

Tanzania furrow Cycle. Tanzania is one of the poorest countries in the world. According to the United Nations data approximately 36% of the global population (43. 7 million people) lives be emit the poerty line. This signifies that the per capita income of Tanzania is relatively low. The Tanzanian scrimping depends upliftedly on agriculture, which makes up 40% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), provides 85% of exports and employs about 80% of the labour force. The remaining 20% is employed either in tourism, construction, mining or the service sector.Although agriculture has boosted Tanzanias delivery, hurdles hushed exist due to the poor infrastructure of the uncouth. However, the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF), together with private foreign companies are adopting measures to develop the republic in order raise its GDP, and establish a sustainable growth number. (Roubin Global Economics 2012). The business cycle represents four phases that the economy o f a country goes through over a period of time, moving away from it actual growth trend as suggested by Grant 2000. These include a) depression, b) recovery, c) boom and d) recession.The interpret (1) in Appendix A shows, how a economy moves through the four stages, moving away from the actual growth trend. At each stage the sparing activities and the total output produced by the economy fluctuate. In addition to that, at each stage the large frugal variables, which include pompousness and unemployment, as well fluctuate. The wealthiness of the country also fluctuates at each stage signifying that at each phase of the business cycle the take aim of consumption, investment, government expenditure, exports and imports fluctuate. (Gant 2000). Below the graph represents Tanzanias business cycle from 1960 to 2011.The graph represents the four phases of the business cycle according to Tanzanias economy, also represents how the economy moves away from its actual growth trend. Gra ph 1 Bigsten and Danielsson(2011) This essay will firstly describe Tanzanias progress through the four scotch phases over the time frame of 1960-2011. Thereafter it will contend how the motley macro economic variables fluctuate during each stage. In particular, this essay will focus on the macro economic variables of unemployment, pomposity, investment, output growth (including the components of commingle demand and supply) and will also consider exports.Depression is the period that come upons between recession and recovery. This is the period when the economy faces high charge per unit of unemployment, veto net investment, low levels of exports and falling demand for consumer goods and services, as well as capital goods. (Grant 2000) This is the period when the output level falls over a period of time and the economy of the country is at the lowest level of growth. This implies that the aggregate demand for commodities produced will be relatively low. At this stage the ec onomy will experience a negative growth rate, thus the country will not experience economic development.Instead the country will experience poverty as the circular conflate of income in the economy is at a minimum. (Grant 2000) As shown in the graph above, according to the Tanzania economic business cycle, it shows that during the period of independence in 1960s, the economy experience a negative growth rate of -4. 2% and had a per capita income rate of 7. 1%. In addition to this the inflation rate was relatively high at 7. 8% as stated by Bigsten and Danielsson (2011). The situation in which the rate of inflation is relatively high and the countrys growth rate is negative is known as hyperinflation.Hyperinflation occurs when the economy highly depends on imports and the countrys currency has lost its value. (Investopedia 2012). This occurred because Tanzania had just been freed from the colonial British rule and, had been taken over by the father of the nation, J. K. Nyerere. The country therefore had to adopt various shed light on policies in order to boost the economy. (Bigsten and Daneelsson (2011)). By the early 1980s Tanzania was heading to an economic crisis, due to the war between Uganda and Tanzania, which climaxed in1978. (EISA2010).During this period of warfare, Tanzania faced a reduction in its exports. In addition to this, there were low levels of investment and low levels of outturn, which decrease the consumption level in the economy. All these factors led to a fall in the aggregate demand and supply in Tanzania. The negative growth also caused the Tanzanian Shilling to depreciate by 25% in 1984, where the wages level decline, thus implying there was a high rate of unemployment, together with that the inflation rate was at 40%, as can be seen on the graph (2) in appendix A. (EISA 2010).According to Rutasita 2004, the high rate of inflation occurred due to the disparagement of the Tanzanian Shilling, which was brought about by the situation of hyperinflation as the currency lost it value. The effect of this on the country was vast as there was a owing(p) dependency on imported products that included oil. Tanzania therefore fell into deep economic crises generally due to the oil price shock, the war between Uganda and Tanzania fall in exports and the depreciation of the local currency. (Noni 2011) Recovery is the period between depression and boom.This is the period in an economy when reforms occur which tends to boost consumption levels, maturation production, increase net investment, increase inflation rates and decrease unemployment rate. Overall, during recovery period the government implements various reform policies, in order to boost the economy and have a positive stable growth in terms of the GDP growth rate (Grant 2000). According to the Tanzanian growth cycle, Tanzania has adopted several reform policies, to allow the economy to have a stable growth rate that would eventually lead to its peak period.Soon a fter its independence from British rule, as suggested by Noni (2011), Tanzania established commercial banks in November 1970,with the main aim to facilitate investment by providing medium and long term loans, in order to boost up the economy of the country, through the industrial sector. Tanzania however, is said to have a growth rate of 4. 2% after 1986 through the reform policy on macro stability (Shanghai Poverty Conference). In addition to this, in order to reform the economy, the Tanzanian government adopted various policies to reduce the poverty level in the county.Between the 1994 and 2002, through the adaptation of the policy, the level of poverty decreased by 28%. The rate of inflation reduced from 30% during the 1980s and early 1990s to a single digit in the late 1990s, as seen in the graph (2) on Appendix A. As suggested by Shanghai Poverty Conference, the introduction of various policies by Tanzania boosted the economy, as it created new investment, both private and for eign direct. The policy also created employment began to expand the economy.The reforms also improved the balance of payment, which stabled the exchange rate to allow the inflation rate to reduce to a single digit in 1999 being 7. 9%, as the economy was less dependent on the imported productions, and also because of the improvement in balance of payment the shillings gained value, thus stabilizing the economy to a certain level (Rutasitara 2004). This implies that overall production level to increase, which signifies that the aggregate demand for the products production would also increase, bring an overall increase in the consumption level.Thus the country has experienced a steady rate of economic growth over the time frame of 1962 to 1976, 1984 to 1995 and finally from 1998 to 2011. The fact that the countrys overall economy has been growing signifies a steady flow of capital circulation in the Tanzanian economy. Boom is the period in the economy that comes after recovery and bef ore recession. During this stage of the business cycle, goods and services are at high demand. Also there is a high import and export rate, the inflation rate is relatively high and employment is at the peak.This stage of the economy is when production is at its highest level and thus the expectation of profit is relatively high. (Grant 2000) Referring to the graph above, between the years 1960 and 2011, the Tanzanian economy has been recovering showing a hearty growth overall in the economy. Tanzania experienced a significant growth rate in 1966 when the growth rate peaked to 12. 8% (ESED International). Thereafter, the economy has also peaked from the year 2000 to 2011, with an average growth rate of 6. 6%, over a period of 11 years.During this period the average inflation rate was 7. 25% (ESDE International). During this period Tanzania had found natural resources including gold and natural gases which has led to the development of its infrastructure. The industrial sector grew by 9. 2% in 2007, and was estimated to grow by 10% in year 2008, as suggested by Campbell and Christie (2010). Tanzania also showed a great improvement in 2010, performing well in foreign exchange reserves tourism sector. The country has collected $3. 7 billion reserves by September 2012 (The Citizen 2010).Furthermore, the country has taken various measures to improve its growth, as stated by work Development Gateway (2012). For example, in the year 2010, there had been more development under private sectors, which benefit the investors, and allow investment to occur in the country, which would bring about employment opportunities. Overall, since the beginning of the twenty-first century Tanzania has experienced a great improvement in terms of the GDP growth rate. (Campbell and Christie 2010) inlet is the period between boom and depression.This is the period when the economic growth slows down eventually attaining a constant level in the economy. This is the phase where the rate o f unemployment would rise, term the rate inflation rate would decrease. During the recession period the economy is growing but at a low rate. (Grant 2000). According to the graph above, Tanzanias economy faced a recession during the year 2008. This occurred due to the global financial crises of 2008 that originated from the United States of America caused a general fall in the level of output.This conventional Tanzanias economy as this caused fuel prices to increase, which led to an increase in price in all the sectors of Tanzanias economy, causing poverty to increase. According to Ngowi (2010), the crises mainly affected the low income earns countries (such as Tanzania) as they are highly financially dependent on the developed nations. Furthermore, due to the financial crises, according to Ngowi (2010) the growth rate predicted by Tanzania reduced from 7. 8% to 7. 5%, in 2008.The investment level also decreased by 10%, together with the level of exports reduced by 44% in cotton i ndustry, 30% in the tourism industry and 50% in the coffee industry. The reduction in all the main economic activities of the country caused the growth rate of the country to decrease. The average inflation rate over the period 2009 to 2011 was 8. 2% (ESDS International). Overall the consumption of in the economy reduced considerably. The financial crises of 2008 did effect the economy of Tanzania, but not at a vast level, as stated by Ngowi (2010).In conclusion this essay has discussed the four phases of a business cycle, showing how an economy of a country (Tanzania) moves through the four stages over a period of time. Overall, Tanzanias economy has been stable since the country ransomed its independence from British rule However according to president Kikwete (2011), the government has come up with a 5-year government scheme in order to advance the countrys economy to a middle income country, with an average GDP growth rate of 8% for next 5 years and targeted growth rate of 10% from 2016 to 2025.Appendix A Graph 1 Graph 1 Google image, the business cycle. Graph 2 Graph 2 ESDS Data Change in inflation rate on2seventh July 2012. REFERENCE 1. Bigsten A. , Danielsson A. (1999) Is Tanzania an emerging economy? A report for the OECD projectEmerging Africa. Online. operational at http//www. investmentcompact. org/dataoecd/40/30/2674918. pdf Accessed on 12th July 2012. 2. Business Development Gateway (2009) Your Gateway to Business success Fanikiwa ki-Biashara. useable at http//www. bdgtpsf. com/ Accessed on 12th July 2012 3. Christie T. , Campbell J. 2010) Tanzania Online Available at http//fic. wharton. upenn. edu/fic/africa/Tanzania%20Final. pdf Accessed on 12th July 2012 4. ESED (2012) The CPI % Change. Available at http//esds80. mcc. ac. uk/wds_ifs/TableViewer/tableView. aspx Accessed on 12th July 2012 5. EISA (2010) Electoral Institute for the Sustainability of Democracy in Africa Tanzania failure of Ujamaa (1976 1986). Available at http//www. eisa. org. za/WEP/tanoverview9. htm Accessed on 12th July 2012. 6. Grant, S. J. (2000) Stanlakes Introductory Economics. 7th edn.Harlow Essex. 7. Google images (2012) The Business cycle. Available at http//www. google. co. uk/imgres? q=the+business+cycle&hl=en&sa=X&tbm=isch&prmd=imvns&tbnid=jagFpjAAwB55EM&imgrefurl=http//monevator. com/investment-clocks/&docid=J2v1d2NUFnqmMM&imgurl=http//monevator. com/wp-content/uploads/2009/05/businesscycle_1. jpg&w=515&h=427&ei=9uIBUPyBAqbC0QXX0uCIBw&zoom=1&biw=930&bih=440 Accessed on 12th July 2012 8. Investopedia (2012)Hyper pretentiousness Definition of Hyper inflation. Available at http//www. investopedia. om/terms/h/hyperinflation. aspaxzz20XRP0LOi Assessed 12th July 2012 9. Ngowi (2010) The Current Global Economic Crisis and its impact in Tanzania. African Journal of Business Management. 4(8) pp 1468 1476. Online Available at http//www. academicjournals. org/AJBM/PDF/pdf2010/18July/Ngowi. pdf Accessed on12th July 2012 10. Noni, P. (2011) Implementin g Successful Reforms and Transformations in DFIs The Experience of Tanzania Investment Bank Limited. Tanzania Investment Bank Limited. Online Available at http//www. adfi-ci. org/ word of honor/Presentation_by_Mr_Noni_TIB. df Accessed on 12th July 2012 11. Roubin Global economics (2012 )Tanzania Economic profile Back ground. Available at http//www. roubini. com/briefings/119199. php Accessed on 12th July 2012. 12. Rutasitara, L. (2004) Exchange rate regimes and inflation in Tanzania. Africa Economic Research consortium. Paper 138 pp. 1-23 Online Available at http//dspace. cigilibrary. org/jspui/bitstream/123456789/32127/1/RP138. pdf? 1 Accessed on 12th July 2012. 13. Shanghai Poverty Conference Tanzanias Economic Reforms and Lessons Learned. Online Available at http//info. worldbank. org/etools/docs/reducingpoverty/case/31/summary/Tanzania%20Country%20Study%20Summary. pdf Accessed on 12th July 2012. 14. United Republic of Tanzania Presidents office planning Commission (2011). The Ta nzania five years development plan 2011/2012 2015/2016. Available at http//www. tanzania. go. tz/pdf/FYDP-2012-02-02. pdf Accessed on 12th July 2012 15. The Citizen (2010) Economy on Course after global recession. Online Available at http//thecitizen. co. tz/magazines/31-business-week/6759-economy-on-course-aft

Help for Various as Level History Essays

version 1. 1 abc General Certificate of Education AS accounting 1041 unit 1 HIS1C The Reformation in Europe, c15001564 gradation lineation 2009 examination June series This mark scheme customs the new numbering system which is being introduced for examinations from June 2010 The specimen assessment existents ar provided to give centres a reasonable idea of the general shape and character of the planned disbelief papers and mark schemes in advance of the operational exams. Further copies of this Mark project are available to download from the AQA Website www. qa. org. uk Copyright 2009 AQA and its licensors. All rights reserved. COPYRIGHT AQA retains the copyright on every(prenominal) its publications. However, registered centres for AQA are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own inside use, with the following important exception AQA can non give permission to centres to photocopy any material that is ac intimacyd to a third party take down for intern al use within the centre. Set and published by the Assessment and Qualifications Alliance.The Assessment and Qualifications Alliance (AQA) is a company control by guarantee registered in England and Wales (company number 3644723) and a registered charity (registered charity number 1073334). Registered address AQA, Devas Street, Manchester M15 6EX Dr Michael Cresswell Director General History AQA GCE Mark Scheme exemplification (June 2010 onwards) generic Introduction for AS The AS History specification is based on the assessment objectives laid down in QCAs GCE History subject criteria and published in the AQA specification booklet.These c everyplace the skills, knowledge and taking into custody which are expected of A take aim candidates. Most questions address to a greater extent than one objective since historic skills, which include knowledge and discretion, are normally deployed together. Consequently, the marking scheme which follows is a take aims of response scheme a nd assesses candidates historical skills in the context of their knowledge and correspondence of History. The levels of response are a graduated credit rating of how candidates have demonstrated their abilities in the Assessment Objectives.Candidates who predominantly address AO1(a) by writing narrative or description will perform at Level 1 or Level 2 depending on its relevance. Candidates who provide more explanation (AO1(b), supported by the relevant selection of material, AO1(a)) will perform at high Level 2 or low-mid Level 3 depending on how denotative they are in their response to the question. Candidates who provide explanation with evaluation, judgement and an knowingness of historical interpretations will be addressing all 3 AOs (AO1(a) AO1(b) AO2(a) and (b) and will have access to the higher mark ranges.AO2(a) which requires the evaluation of source material is assessed in Unit 2. Differentiation between Levels 3, 4 and 5 is judged according to the extent to which ca ndidates meet this range of assessment objectives. At Level 3 the retorts will collection more characteristics of the AO1 objectives, although thither should be elements of AO2. At Level 4, AO2 criteria, particularly an understand of how the past has been interpreted, will be more in evidence and this will be even more dominant at Level 5.The demands on scripted communication, particularly the transcription of ideas and the use of specialist vocabulary also increase through the miscellaneous levels so that a candidate performing at the highest AS level is already well prepared for the demands of A2. 3 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards) CRITERIA FOR MARKING GCE HISTORY AS EXAMINATION PAPERS General Guidance for Examiners (to accompany Level Descriptors) Deciding on a level and the award of mark within a levelIt is of vital importance that examiners familiarise themselves with the generic mark scheme and apply it consistently, as directed by the Principal Examiner, in hallow to facilitate comparability across options. The indicative mark scheme for each paper is designed to illustrate about(a) of the material that candidates might refer to (knowledge) and round of the approaches and ideas they might develop (skills). It is not, however, prescriptive and should only be used to exemplify the generic mark scheme. When applying the generic mark scheme, examiners will constantly need to exercising judgement to decide which level fits an answer best.Few essays will display all the characteristics of a level, so deciding the most appropriate will always be the first task. Each level has a range of marks and for an essay which has a strong correlation with the level descriptors the middle mark should be given. However, when an answer has some of the characteristics of the level above or below, or seems stronger or weaker on comparison with many former(a) candidates responses to the same question, the mark will need to be adjusted up or down. When deciding on the mark within a level, the following criteria should be considered in relation to the level descriptors.Candidates should never be doubly penalised. If a candidate with poor communication skills has been placed in Level 2, he or she should not be moved to the bottom of the level on the basis of the poor quality of create verbally communication. On the other hand, a candidate with similarly poor skills, whose work otherwise matched the criteria for Level 4 should be adjusted downwards within the level. Criteria for deciding marks within a level The accuracy of factual information The level of detail The deepness and precision displayed The quality of associate and argumentsThe quality of written communication (grammar, spelling, punctuation and legibility an appropriate form and style of writing clear and coherent cheek of ideas, including the use of specialist vocabulary) Appropriate references to historical interpretation and debate The conclusio n 4 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards) Specimen Mark Scheme for examinations in June 2010 onwards GCE AS History Unit 1 Change and Consolidation HIS1C The Reformation in Europe, c15001564 school principal 1 01 Explain why Luther attacked the bargain of indulgences in 1517. (12 marks) aim AO1(a), AO1(b) Generic Mark SchemeNothing written worthy of credit. 0 L1 Answers will make up either some descriptive material which is only in general link up to the center of the question or some obvious comment with little, if any, appropriate support. Answers are likely to be generalised and assertive. The response will be modified in outgrowth and skills of written communication will be weak. 1-2 L2 Answers will demonstrate some knowledge and correspondence of the demands of the question. They will either be approximately entirely descriptive with few explicit links to the question or they will provide some explanations support by evidence that is modified i n range and/or erudition.Answers will be coherent and weakly verbalised and/or poorly structured. 3-6 L3 Answers will demonstrate strong understanding of the demands of the question providing relevant explanations backed by appropriately selected information, although this may not be full or comprehensive. Answers will, for the most part, be clearly verbalized and come out some organisation in the presentation of material. 7-9 L4 Answers will be well- strained, identifying a range of specific explanations, backed by precise evidence and demonstrating secure understanding of the connections and links between events/issues.Answers will, for the most part, be well-written and organised. 10-12 revelatory content Candidates will need to be able to link Luthers own intellectual development with the wider political and religious context. Luthers hostility towards indulgences had hardened from about 1513 as he developed his solifidian ideas. In particular, their issue had no scriptu ral basis. However, the formulation of the 95 Theses was sparked off by the aggressive peddling of indulgences by the Dominican Johannes Tetzel at Juterbog, not far from Wittenberg only outside the jurisdiction of Electoral Saxony.Cin one casern, at that placefore, for the mortal souls of guileless dupes was thus a catalyst for Luthers protest. On the other hand, Luthers initial objections were as much the product of the scale of sale and the style of salesmanship as it was a product of a considered theological analysis. The scale of the operation was a consequence of the indebtedness of both Pope Leo X, on account not only of his extravagant lifestyle but also the spiralling cost of rebuilding St. Peters, and the 5 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards)Archbishop of Mainz, in huge debt to the Fuggers because of the meat he had borrowed to secure the simoniacal acquisition of the archbishopric. Tetzels sales pitch had included the claim of plenary remission of sins as heinous as raping the Virgin Mary. disbelief 1 02 How far was the achiever of the Lutheran movement in Germany due to the reformers use of the printing press in the years 1517 to 1555? (24 marks) Target AO1(a), AO1(b), AO2(b) Generic Mark Scheme Nothing written worthy of credit. 0 L1Answers may either contain some descriptive material which is only in general linked to the focus of the question or they may address only a part of the question. Alternatively, there may be some explicit comment with little, if any, appropriate support. Answers are likely to be generalised and assertive. There will be little, if any, awareness of differing historical interpretations. The response will be exceptional in development and skills of written communication will be weak. 1-6 L2 Answers will show some understanding of the focus of the question.They will either be almost entirely descriptive with few explicit links to the question or they may contain some explicit comment with releva nt but limited support. They will display limited understanding of differing historical interpretations. Answers will be coherent but weakly expressed and/or poorly structured. 7-11 L3 Answers will show a developed understanding of the demands of the question. They will provide some assessment, backed by relevant and appropriately selected evidence, but they will lack depth and/or balance.There will be some understanding of varying historical interpretations. Answers will, for the most part, be clearly expressed and show some organisation in the presentation of material. 12-16 L4 Answers will show explicit understanding of the demands of the question. They will develop a balanced argument backed by a good range of appropriately selected evidence and a good understanding of historical interpretations. Answers will, for the most part, show organisation and good skills of written communication. 17-21 L5 Answers will be well-focused and nigh argued.The arguments will be supported by i ncisively selected evidence leading to a relevant conclusion/judgement, incorporating well-developed understanding of historical interpretations and debate. Answers will, for the most part, be conservatively organised and fluently written, using appropriate vocabulary. 22-24 Indicative content Printing had a fundamental role in the success of the Lutheran movement this can be traced back to November 1517 when Luthers 95 Theses were translated and printed in numerous editions, suggesting the existence of an avid and informed readership History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards) the 1520 pamphlets sold in large numbers and were pivotal in disseminating Luthers theological ideas and their relationship to the contemporary political context Luther and his colleagues continued to publish widely, his translation of the Bible proved very influential and the Lutheran message was bed covering visually in huge numbers of woodcuts, which meant that the message could be assi milated by the illiterate as well as the literate n contrast, the Catholic church responded rather slowly at first to the Lutheran challenge in the unequal-term, at any rate, its exploitation of the potential offered by the new technology remaining much to be desired. other(a) factors The importance of printing should be placed in the context of a range of other factors, including the political impulse created by the support for Luther of many German princes the problems faced by Charles V which prevented his prioritising the destruction of the Lutheran threat before 1546 and also prevented him from achieving a triumph even though he had been militarily successful he appeal of Luthers ideas the social impact of Luthers teaching (at least until 1525) the impact of preaching the contribution of other reformers, such as Melanchthon. 7 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards) Question 2 03 Explain why the Anabaptists were suppressed in Munster in 1535. (12 ma rks) Target AO1(a), AO1(b) Generic Mark Scheme Nothing written worthy of credit. 0 L1 Answers will contain either some descriptive material which is only loosely linked to the focus of the question or some explicit comment with little, if any, appropriate support.Answers are likely to be generalised and assertive. The response will be limited in development and skills of written communication will be weak. 1-2 L2 Answers will demonstrate some knowledge and understanding of the demands of the question. They will either be almost entirely descriptive with few explicit links to the question or they will provide some explanations backed by evidence that is limited in range and/or depth. Answers will be coherent but weakly expressed and/or poorly structured. 3-6 L3Answers will demonstrate good understanding of the demands of the question providing relevant explanations backed by appropriately selected information, although this may not be full or comprehensive. Answers will, for the most part, be clearly expressed and show some organisation in the presentation of material. 7-9 L4 Answers will be well-focused, identifying a range of specific explanations, backed by precise evidence and demonstrating good understanding of the connections and links between events/issues. Answers will, for the most part, be well-written and organised. 10-12 Indicative contentCandidates might include some of the following factors all authority, both secular and religious, appeared to be challenged by the predominate of the Saints in Munster and this encouraged the traditional authorities to take violent action traditional morality was challenged with the introduction of polygamy and was regarded with particular repugnance by socially unprogressive rulers, both Lutheran and Catholic property rights were challenged with the introduction of a form of communism which was a direct challenge to the basis on which traditional rulership was conducted all existing political authority was r ejected.This was a threat which could not be ignored by both the Catholic Bishop and the Lutheran Philip of Hesse. The Anabaptists rejected Bibliocentrism and stressed kind of direct divine inspiration, which tended conveniently to reinforce the above points. The result was a dramatic and apocalyptic movement which frightened Catholics and Lutherans alike. This even led the Landgrave of Hesse, the political attraction of the Lutheran movement, and the Bishop of Munster to set aside their differences in order to join forces to suppress the Saints. 8 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards)Question 2 04 How far was the success of the Genevan Reformation to 1564 a result of Calvins actions against his opponents? (24 marks) Target AO1(a), AO1(b), AO2(b) Generic Mark Scheme Nothing written worthy of credit. 0 L1 Answers may either contain some descriptive material which is only loosely linked to the focus of the question or they may address only a part of the question. Alternatively, there may be some explicit comment with little, if any, appropriate support. Answers are likely to be generalised and assertive. There will be little, if any, awareness of differing historical interpretations.The response will be limited in development and skills of written communication will be weak. 1-6 L2 Answers will show some understanding of the focus of the question. They will either be almost entirely descriptive with few explicit links to the question or they may contain some explicit comment with relevant but limited support. They will display limited understanding of differing historical interpretations. Answers will be coherent but weakly expressed and/or poorly structured. 7-11 L3 Answers will show a developed understanding of the demands of the question.They will provide some assessment, backed by relevant and appropriately selected evidence, but they will lack depth and/or balance. There will be some understanding of varying historical interpretations. Answers will, for the most part, be clearly expressed and show some organisation in the presentation of material. 12-16 L4 Answers will show explicit understanding of the demands of the question. They will develop a balanced argument backed by a good range of appropriately selected evidence and a good understanding of historical interpretations. Answers will, for the most part, show organisation and good skills of written communication. 7-21 L5 Answers will be well-focused and closely argued. The arguments will be supported by precisely selected evidence leading to a relevant conclusion/judgement, incorporating well-developed understanding of historical interpretations and debate. Answers will, for the most part, be carefully organised and fluently written, using appropriate vocabulary. 22-24 Indicative content Calvin, once he had recovered from early setbacks, made short work of religious opponents, such as Castellio, Bolsec and Servetus. His triumph over Perrin and the Libertines demonstrated the extent of his political as well as his theological control over Geneva.The discipline thus engendered made Geneva an even more successful centre of reform, becoming in effect the hub of a huge missionary movement. Other factors help to explain the success of reform in Geneva, including the importance of Calvins writing and preaching should not be underestimated church organisation was important in holstering reform in Geneva 9 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards) Calvins authority was bolstered by such institutions as the Consistory and the Grabeau the assi side of the Genevan Council, once it had been purged of Calvins opponents, was critical he Genevan Academy became an important institution for the training of Calvinist clergy, though, as it was only founded in 1559, its impact by 1564 was necessarily limited. Question 3 05 Explain why many new orders developed within the Catholic Church in the early sixteenth century (before 1540). (12 marks) Target AO1(a), AO1(b) Generic Mark Scheme Nothing written worthy of credit. 0 L1 Answers will contain either some descriptive material which is only loosely linked to the focus of the question or some explicit comment with little, if any, appropriate support.Answers are likely to be generalised and assertive. The response will be limited in development and skills of written communication will be weak. 1-2 L2 Answers will demonstrate some knowledge and understanding of the demands of the question. They will either be almost entirely descriptive with few explicit links to the question or they will provide some explanations backed by evidence that is limited in range and/or depth. Answers will be coherent but weakly expressed and/or poorly structured. 3-6 L3Answers will demonstrate good understanding of the demands of the question providing relevant explanations backed by appropriately selected information, although this may not be full or comprehensive. Answers will, for the m ost part, be clearly expressed and show some organisation in the presentation of material. 7-9 L4 Answers will be well-focused, identifying a range of specific explanations, backed by precise evidence and demonstrating good understanding of the connections and links between events/issues. Answers will, for the most part, be well-written and organised. 10-12 Indicative contentThe process of Catholic renewal was exemplified by the creation and activity of new orders within the Church, mostly in aboriginal and northern Italy. A number of factors help to explain their emergence there was clearly a rising spirituality particularly amongst a number of move churchmen such as Gaetano di Thiene there was an increasing perception that traditional monasticism was no longer able to provide the spiritual impetus and evangelising which the Church needed there was a willingness on the part of wealthy patrons to support the orders spiritual aims 10 History AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2 010 onwards) there is clear evidence that the home of some orders was a response to the social misery which characterised parts of Italy in the 1520s. Question 3 06 How important was the Papacy in reforming the Catholic Church in the years 1534 to 1564? (24 marks) Target AO1(a), AO1(b), AO2(b) Generic Mark Scheme Nothing written worthy of credit. 0 L1 Answers may either contain some descriptive material which is only loosely linked to the focus of the question or they may address only a part of the question. Alternatively, there may be some explicit comment with little, if any, appropriate support.Answers are likely to be generalised and assertive. There will be little, if any, awareness of differing historical interpretations. The response will be limited in development and skills of written communication will be weak. 1-6 L2 Answers will show some understanding of the focus of the question. They will either be almost entirely descriptive with few explicit links to the question or they may contain some explicit comment with relevant but limited support. They will display limited understanding of differing historical interpretations. Answers will be coherent but weakly expressed and/or poorly structured. 7-11 L3Answers will show a developed understanding of the demands of the question. They will provide some assessment, backed by relevant and appropriately selected evidence, but they will lack depth and/or balance. There will be some understanding of varying historical interpretations. Answers will, for the most part, be clearly expressed and show some organisation in the presentation of material. 12-16 L4 Answers will show explicit understanding of the demands of the question. They will develop a balanced argument backed by a good range of appropriately selected evidence and a good understanding of historical interpretations.Answers will, for the most part, show organisation and good skills of written communication. 17-21 Answers will be well-focused and clo sely argued. The arguments will be supported by precisely selected evidence leading to a relevant conclusion/judgement, incorporating well-developed understanding of historical interpretations and debate. Answers will, for the most part, be carefully organised and fluently written, using appropriate vocabulary. 22-24 L5 Indicative content The impact of the papacy during this period was, at best, variable.Paul III, despite his evident corruption and shortcomings, set up in 1536 the commission which produced the reform proposals contained in the Consiliumde Emendanda Ecclesia. Despite papal sponsorship, the Consilium achieved only a small proportion of its objectives, which might reinforce a critical stance concerning Paul III as a proponent of reform. On the other hand, he did set up the Council of Trent, though it achieved little during his pontificate. His successor, Julius III, had little interest in reform, though he did keep the Council in session. Paul IV, though genuinely 11Hi story AQA GCE Mark Scheme SPECIMEN (June 2010 onwards) interested in reform, almost destroyed the reforming impetus on account of his divisiveness, antagonising both ecclesiastical colleagues such as Cardinal Morone and key Catholic monarchs such as Charles V, Philip II and Ferdinand. Pius IV managed to extinguish Paul IVs bitter legacy and, most importantly, set the Council of Trent back in motion and drove it to a successful conclusion. Other factors back up the process of reform the effects of the New Orders the early work of the Jesuits the eventual assertiveness of the Council of Trent reforming bishops. 12

Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL interrogative BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL guard duty AND wellness NATIONAL global CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1 IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1998 Answer ALL call into headsTime Allowed 2 hours incision 1This section contains adept interrogative mood. You be rede to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The ut nigh attach for singlely section of the suspicion be shown in brackets. 1(a)Define the term ergonomics. (2) (b)Outline the possible effects on wellness that whitethorn be ca utilize by the poor ergonomic design of visual display unit (VDU) workstations. (4) (c)Outline the main factors to be considered in an ergonomic judgment of a workstation to be expendd by a VDU operator. (14) Section 2This section contains TEN perplexity. You are advised to spend approximately one AND A HALF HOURS on it. The utmost mark for each question, or expound of a question are shown in brackets. 2Provide sketches to show dis tinctly the nature of the following mechanical guesss from moving move of weaponry (i) vane(2) (ii)crushing(2) (iii)drawing-in(2) (iv)shear. (2) (a)Outline the main factors to be considered in the siting of prove extinguishers. (4) (b)Outline the management and concern requirements for fire extinguishers in the workplace. (4) 4Explain the meaning of the following terms in congenator to noise snatch (i)silencing(2) (ii)absorption(2) (iii)damping(2) (iv) isolation. (2) 5Outline a occasion for the safe lifting of a load by the use of a crane, having visitd that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. (8) (a)Define the term target organ within the context of occupational health. (2) (b)Outline the personal hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce the risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance. (6) 7Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear explaining in EACH character reference how the footwear affords cheerion. (8) 8 tilt the items that should be embarrassd on an inspection check angle of inclination intentional to ensure the safety of port satisfactory-bodied galvanising appliances. (8) 9Outline the main precautions to be taken when carrying out slam work. (8) 10(a) show TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. (2) (b)Identify where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) 11List the ways in which a fork lift truck may become unstable whilst in operation. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1998 Paper A1 Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners Report Section 1 head 1 This question aimed to appreciate crapperdidates breadth of knowledge in semblance to ergonomics.Socratic Seminar dubietysMany candidates, for activate (a), were able to bear satisfactory definitions of ergonomics, which is generally accepted as existence the st udy of the inter consummation mingled with workers and their work, and is implicated with the design of the workplace, work equipment and work methods with the of necessity and limitations of the homophile operator in mind. Definitions such(prenominal)(prenominal)(prenominal) as man-machine interface, which st paraplegic commonly appear in candidates answers, are considered to be too narrowly focused. Ergonomics is concerned with far much than simply the use of machinery. disunite (b) inevitable candidates to demonstrate an correspondence of the possible health effects that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of VDU workstations. A consider of candidates simply listed conditions such as work-related upper limb disorders and eye strain, which was in competent to gain high label. The question involveed candidates to provide an abstraction of such conditions in order to demonstrate a graceful to a lower placestanding of the effects. An adequate outline would typ ically include detail of symptoms and the component part that would make the effects more likely.The final part of the question was answered reasonably well by nigh candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environment, the job and the individual, and their inter-relationships. whatever candidates went beyond the scope of the question and paraphrased the requirements of the wellness and prophylactic (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, such as the requirement for eyesight attempts. In fact, most of the factors applicable to an ergonomic assessment are contained in a schedule to these Regulations.In addition, some answers included non-ergonomic abbreviates such as fire safety and electricity. Once again, candidates are reminded to read the question thoroughly and to take none of identify words and phrases. Section 2 wonder 2 An understanding of mechanical hazards associated with moving move of machi nery is a key part of the Certificate syllabus and this question was knowing to test candidates understanding of the categorisation of mechanical hazards given in Part 1 of BS EN 2921991, Safety of machinery basic concepts, general principles for design (and in the former British Standard, BS 53041988, Safeguarding of machinery).Examiners were non looking for works of art they did, however, require something that clearly represented parts of machinery and which demonstrated the point hazard being referred to. Arrows to show the direction of movement helpered enormously in this task. Some sketches were so poor that it was impossible to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas some others were passing well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A considerable numerate of candidates showed confusion between the different types of hazard in circumstance, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were often inter departd, and shearing depended unfamiliar to ma ny. Examiners were quite concerned that on the whole candidates did not take advantage of what should take aim been easily obtainable mark from this question. incredulity 3 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. For part (a), nearly all candidates were able to offer an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates included accessibility, visibility, proximity to exits and escape routes, travel keeps, and the government agency of supporting the equipment off the ground and free from obstruction. Only a few candidates, however, identified the need to encourage extinguishers from the weather and other sources of damage. A little more difficulty was found with part (b), which required candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers remain operational. in that location were, however, some very(prenominal) faithful answers that clearly differentiated between the purposes of an inspection and those of nutrition. Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in place, have not been saucerharged and bear no obvious damage. Maintenance, on the other hand, is something preferably more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a efficient person according to the manufacturers instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the removal and replacement of equipment found to be faulty. fountainhead 4 This question seek to assess candidates knowledge of basic noise control terms and principles. Unfortunately, many candidates either confused the terms, in particular damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to noise control. The latter group of candidates some whiles resorted to giving other information on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the Noise at Work Regulations 1989, and for which marks were not therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which explained that silencing refers to the suppression of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and squalls, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of either absorptive material or baffles absorption is used to reduce the amount of reflected noise by victimisation materials such as foam or mineral wool damping is used primarily to reduce the amount of noise radiating from large panels and is achieved by increase the stiffness of the panels and isolation refers to the physical separation of people from the noise source (eg acoustic booths or havens), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by chill isolation (eg flexible pipes or anti-vibration machine mounts). Some goodness answers included simple sketches and subjects to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this subject area. Question 5 This was a question where candidates could earn high marks by imagining a lifting operation and then applying countenance controls from stolon principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to have a little knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates wasted valuable time by going into detail on the suitability of the crane itself, even though the question was carefully worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation need to take into account such issues as the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe functional(a) load, free from defect, etc) the competence of the persons involved (driver, slinger, signaller) ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary ensuring proper communication keeping the area clear of other persons and performing each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that maintains proper control. Questio n 6 Most candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the idea that the harmful effects of a toxic substance are normally confined to particular organs within the human carcass, such as the lungs, liver, spit out or kidneys. Hence, a target organ is the part of the body that sustains an adverse effect when it is unfastened to, or is grime by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the risk of ingestion and the role played by personal hygiene in reducing the risk.Again, candidates are reminded of the need to read the question carefully since many appeared to pretermit the words personal hygiene and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. Good answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as regular hand washing, the restriction of smoking and feeding in the workplace, the use of suitable personal cautionary equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and cleaning contaminated clothing. Question 7 The importa nce of foot protection is illustrated by the fact that around 21,000 foot and ankle injuries were reported to the enforcing authorities in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was benignant to note that a high proportion of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, identifying good examples of the types of hazard and the appropriate footwear requirements. The most common included falling objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), spread of contamination (washable boots), molten coat (heat resistant boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), wet environments (impermeable wellingtons), slippery surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). Question 8 The Examiners were pleased with the overall result to this question.Most candidates were able to offer fai rly comprehensive lists of inspection items that included equipment appropriate for the task and environment equipment tested equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage correct wiring and sound connections fuses and other means of preventing excess current in place and of correct rating accessible and appropriate means of isolation and system not overloaded. Question 9 The dangers of excavation work include go of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, contact with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of piss and contact with mechanical plant. Candidates should have been able to outline a prototype of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include detection of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc) support of sides storage of materials and spoil away from edge means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks) guard-rails and barriers means of preventing collapse of a djacent structures safe means of access/egress testing for, and ventilation of, noxious fumes means of pumping out water procedures for working(a) with mechanical plant and general issues such as inspection, training and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, often by means of examples, performed especially well on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide two respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung cancer being the most popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to identify several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a building during renovation. These included pipe lagging, wall and roof panels, ceiling tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metallic element girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not propeling the marks, the Examiners were a little surprised by the few answers that referred to mesothelioma in part ( a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with asbestos exposure. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being relatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were insecure, excessive or uneven loading incorrect tilt and/or elevation of forks when travel uneven or unconsolidated ground slopes (and incorrect procedures to deal with them) obstructions (overhead and low take) cornering at excessive speeds sudden braking poor condition of tyres and mechanical failure. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2 THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.The maximum ma rks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. 1(a)Outline the duties placed on employers under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992. (4) (b) secernate the FOUR factors that should be considered when making an assessment of manual handling operations. (16) Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. 2Outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a workplace emergency. (8) 3(a)Define the term negligence(2) (b)Outline the tercet standard conditions that must be met for an employee to manifest a human face of alleged negligence against an employer. (6) 4Outline the key points that should be covered in a training session for employees on the reporting of accidents/incidents. (8) 5List the main requirements of the Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1992. (8) 6With reference to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996 (i)explain the difference between consulting and informing(2) (ii)outline the health and safety matters on which employers must consult their employees. (6) Outline TWO reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in observe an organisations health and safety performance. (8) 8Outline the reasons why employees may fail to keep abreast with safety procedures at work. (8) 9(a)Explain the meaning of the terms (i) occupational exposure standard (OES) (ii) maximum exposure limit (MEL). (2)(2) (b)Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. (4) 10(a)Explain the meaning of the term safe system of work. (2) (b)Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of work has not been implemented. (6) 1Outline the factors to consider when making an assessment of first-aid planning in a workplace. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1998 Paper A2 The management of safety and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners Report Section 1 Question 1 With manual handling injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by people at work, this question sought to test the depth and breadth of knowledge of candidates with regard both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. There were some very good retorts to the first part of this question.Good answers outlined the employers duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of avoiding manual handling operations wherever possible conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks fetching steps to reduce the risk of injury to the lowest level reasonably practicable providing information to employees on the weight and weight distribution of the load and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) required candidate s to describe the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates correctly identified, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were able to consider a wide range of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures required (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the process, are all relevant. Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, stability, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the environment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for special information and training. The overall standard of response to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were generally able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question required candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, bomb scare, chemical passing water or other dangerous occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a particular(prenominal) requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied with some candidates able to provide quite reasonable answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an genuine emergen cy (usually a fire) or else than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. Better candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities the identification and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities the layout of the premises in relation to escape routes, etc the number of persons touch assessment of special needs ( modify persons, children, etc) pattern systems emergency lighting the location of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc the equipment required to deal with the emergency the location of assembly points communication with emergency services and the training and/or information to be provided to employees, visitors, the local community and others who might be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates found it difficult to provide, for part (a), a clear definition of negligence, a tort involving a let on of the common fairness duty to take reasonable care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of criminal liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide reasonable answers that identified the one-third standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence firstly, that a duty of care is owed secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates made use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was rather poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word reporting solely in relation to the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to trai ning and simply outlined suitable internal reporting procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the actual procedures did not unfeignedly form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the importance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident book and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a straightforward question where little difficulty was anticipated and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to the suitability of work equipment training maintenance of equipment conformity with EU requirements preventing cont act with dangerous parts of machinery protection against specified hazards protection against high or low temperatures stop and emergency stop controls position of controls safety of control systems means of isolation stability lighting safety of maintenance operations and the provision of markings and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went tho than necessary by giving detail of the requirements, such as the means of protecting against dangerous parts.Despite more than of the information being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the action verb in each question. Question 6 The HSE guide to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between informing and consulting. Perhaps from a general understanding of the words, nearly all candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the two. Under the Health and Safet y at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations made under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was involved, with some candidates seemingly applying a certain amount of dig (albeit sometimes quite intuitively) and others showing an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977.They include the base of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees h ealth and safety the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating competent persons the planning and organisation of health and safety training the health and safety implications of introducing bleak technology and the information that the employer is required to provide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, arrest measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are obliged not only to provide information but- they must also consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of techniques and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that might be described as reactive (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are proactive (identifying non-compliance with policy or procedures before actual harm occurs). unstable measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims a nd enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and audits, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to this question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which demonstrated a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as unrealistic or ill-considered procedures mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account inadequate training poor organisational safety culture complacenc y/neediness of motivation peer group compel other priorities and pressures risks not perceived slips and lapses fatigue and stress and perceived inadequacy of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners Reports drawing trouble to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again struggling to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. Following this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is assigned an OES when current evidence indicates that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that average airborne concentrations at or below the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or due to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered safe. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as far as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to minimise any ill-health effects.Excursions above an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the beneficial implications of exceeding an MEL. Better responses differentiated between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. Emergency procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the process producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be made of the reasons for the breakdown in control and improvements (such as more effective ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to hi gh concentrations should be the subject of special health surveillance. Question 10 The development of safe systems is an essential part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight mark for lists, which received minimal credit. Higher marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would determine the type of action that an inspector might take, and the effects of that action on the organisation. Possible enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or p rohibition post horse, and prosecution. Credit was also given for the recognition that an inspector may give verbal or written advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and location of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special needs of young, disabled or peripatetic employees. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive dust levels in a workplace. (i) Identify FOUR possible indications of a dust problem that may have alerted supply to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne dust. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates breadth of knowledge of the problem of dust in the workplace. In answering part (i), most candidates were able to identify at least three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and mood by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill-health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates addressed both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of main tenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, unauthorised adjustment to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to increased dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to describe methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the action mechanism creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to change it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of the principles by describing such methods in a hierarchical order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming instead of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce personal exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more widely across the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driven strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the possibility of fire or explosion, contact with the moving parts of the strimmer, being struck by flying stones and fragments, noise and vibration, m anual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving traffic and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates resolved not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible hazards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against electrical contact when (i)excavating near underground cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with better candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the identification of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand-tools rather than with a mechanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of g oal-post barriers to define clearance distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with tunnels), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was significant that only virtually half of the candidates mentioned the possibility of isolating the power supply in either part of the question.Some candidates missed the focus of the question and either concentrated on the supplying of a risk assessment or described in detail the operation of a permit-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against electrical contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard (i) fixed guard(2) (ii) interlocked guard. (2) (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a fixed machine guard. (4) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a fixed guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the principle that a machine cannot start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, and that when the machin e is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be opened or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the identification of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Candidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to increased reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entre of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most can didates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by injection.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case, however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg welding) or accidentally (eg spillage) ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands) entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched (sloping) roof. (8)This question sought to test candidates knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the relevant precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling boards or roof ladders, identifying and screen roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a trained and competent workforce, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety goggles compared with safety spectacles. (2) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemi cal, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually made to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also generally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates generally gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of goggles from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displaced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the generally higher cost involved and the fact that they may be more uncomfortable than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associa ted with laying paving slabs in a busy high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as trapped fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs the possibility of being struck by traffic injuries from the use of cutting discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles) the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and wet cement and the increased likelihood of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal experience of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be visualised quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concentrated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners expected candidates to outli ne measures such as the proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). Additional measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, electrical equipment and systems should be subject to regular inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too bri ef. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. More knowledgeable candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos- containing materials. Question 11List eighter from Decatur non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the candidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, dissimilar mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to refurbish existing mightiness accommodation before r ecruiting staff. Outline (i)the welfare facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the procedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, likely because it was concerned with issues that were relatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and nursing mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situation described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were invol ved. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have locker rooms, or exhibitor and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general welfare issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some candidates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident reporting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in an swering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of identification badges, the provision of information on site rules (including emergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a member of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify sanitary conveniences without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for men and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level of stress amongst employees. Outline ogdoad other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in stale air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to mental (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms (i) hazard(2) (ii) risk(3) (iii) so far as is reasonably practicable. (3) Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to find that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such fundamental health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable explanations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term hazard. As far as risk was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain so far is as reasonably practicable, most candidates inferred that this involves balancing risk against cost but fewer were able to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In relation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety representative(6) (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety representatives. (2) In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, aid safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not possess such knowledge. For part (ii), reference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a private room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, fax machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candid ates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word facilities and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time to carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate. (2) b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. (6) For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relatively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit system, the first of which would be a description and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This pass on determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the additional precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for(p) for the work. On completion of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be cancelled by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appeared to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlinin g the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the findings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current edict and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to communicate health and safety information to the workforce. (8) Posters are a commonly used medium for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more difficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the advantages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing verbal instructions or information a nd in providing a constant reminder of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the need to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to trivialise serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by shifting the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at work. (4) (b) Give reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those undertaking them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candida tes. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the strongly linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additional factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by alcohol or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the existence of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the likelihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and their contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor wor k environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as short a time as possible in order to return to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference between HSC Approved Codes of devote and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the Secretary of State and provide a recognised interpretation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACOP is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court in criminal proceedings as proof that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards co ntained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display screen equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the meaning of the term suitable and sufficient. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term suitable and sufficient in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information becoming available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisations, health and safety per formance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. Proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than the measures that are derived from them and which can be compared over time. This sometimes limited the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTI FICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1 IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. 1(a)List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. (3) (b)Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7) (c)Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. (10) Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. 2In relation to occupational dermatitis (i)identify TWO common causative agents(2) (ii)describe the typical symptoms of the con dition (3) (iii)state the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. (3) 3A pneumatic drill is to be used during extensive repair work to the floor of a busy warehouse. (i)Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. (3) (ii)Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. (5) 4State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. (8) 5(a)Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. (4) (b)Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. (4) 6Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. (8) The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the be p recautions to be taken. (8) 8(a)Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. (4) (b)Outline the health effects associated with exposure to non-ionising radiation. (4) 9Explain the methods of heat transferral that cause the spread of fire. (8) 10(a)List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. (2) (b)Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. (6) 1List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1999 Paper A1 Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly